Posted: November 29th, 2017

logistic regression and odds ratio

Question description

Suppose we have data from a health survey conducted in year
2010 – Essay Writing Service: Write My Essay by Top-Notch Writer. Data were obtained from a random sample of 2342 persons.
A dichotomous logistic regression analysis was conducted in
the following way:
Dependent Variable (Y): Self-reported general health (1 if
not healthy, 0 if healthy)
Independent Variables: Gender (1 if female, 0 if male)
Age (in years)
Race/Ethnicity (binary variables
for “Non-Hispanic Black” “Hispanic” and “Others”; the reference category is
“Non-Hispanic White”)
Form of the equation:  where p is the probability of being
self-reportedly unhealthy and Xj’s
(j=1, 2, …, k) are independent variables. Age range of the sample: 25-84.  The log(p/(1-p))
is also called log odds. (Note, the
logarithm we used in the class is natural log. If you use EXCEL, make sure to
use the ln() function instead of the log() function).
The computer output is given below. The column labeled
“Beta” shows estimated regression coefficients, i.e., α and β’s in the above
equation. (It can be interpreted that beta’s for the reference categories,
“Male” and “Non-Hispanic White”, are fixed to be zero.)

Variables

Beta

P-value

Exp(beta)

intercept

-3.184

<0.001 0.041 Gender (Female) 0.050 0.538 1.051 Age 0.026 <0.001 1.026 Race/Ethnicity   Non-Hispanic Black 0.806 <0.001 2.240   Hispanic 1.314 <0.001 3.722   Others 0.423 0.070 1.527 N=2342. 1-1. Suppose that the data set includes a 30-year old Hispanic man. What is his log odds of being self-reportedly unhealthy according to this regression equation?  1-2. What are his odds of being self-reportedly unhealthy according to this regression equation?  1-3. What is the probability for him to be self-reportedly unhealthy, according to this regression equation?  1-4. The above table shows that exp(beta) for “Hispanic” is 3.722  ( = exp(1.314) ). What does this number mean? (Hint: Note that the reference category for Race/Ethnicity is “Non-Hispanic White”.) 1-5. The above table shows that exp(beta) for “Age” is 1.026 ( = exp(0.026) ). What does this number mean?  1-6. Let us consider the odds (or log odds) of being self reportedly unhealthy for Non-Hispanic White, adjusted for gender and age, and that for Non-Hispanic Black. Are they statistically significantly different at the 0.05 level by the two-sided test? Why or why not? 

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